Faithfulness
QUESTION
I'm puzzled why the word "faithfulness" does not occur in the New Testament of the King James translation. Please explain why.
ANSWER
I do not know why the KJV translators did not use "faithfulness." I suppose that it is because "faith" carries the same implication as "faithfulness" in some contexts, though we don't often use it in that way anymore. I am aware that "faithfulness" is how some modern translations handle pistis (G4102) in places like Galatians 5:22. The KJV rendering of "faith" carries the implication of "faithfulness" without blunting the emphasis that faith is a gift of God that accompanies the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit. Elsewhere, Titus 2:10 translates pistis as "fidelity" which is the same as "faithfulness." That said, the concept of faithfulness is found throughout the scriptures, often implied by the use of "faithful" in translating pistos (G4103).
I presume you are investigating the matter of faith in conjunction with our ongoing discussion about whether faith is a gift vs whether it is a fruit. I believe that this matter is resolved by recognizing that faith most certainly IS a gift per Philippians 1:29, even if someone rejects that Ephesians 2:8 teaches that point. Moreover, I believe that the distinction between the possession of spiritual capacities and their exercise further clarifies the matter. We are given the capacity of faith in regeneration and are subsequently exhorted to put it to good use. So there is a difference between the possession and the expression of faith. The latter proves the existence of the former, but is not instrumental in how the former was acquired.
FOLLOW UP QUESTION
No, it is not related to the discussion of whether faith is a fruit worked within by the indwelling spirit or a gift from without. My thought was on "justified by the faith of Christ." You said,
"Moreover, I believe that the distinction between the possession of spiritual capacities and their exercise further clarifies the matter."
It doesn't. It still begs the question, how does one come into possession of faith - is it a fruit worked within a child of God by the indwelling Spirit or is it a gift bestowed to a child of God from without. I believe the gift in Ephesians 2:8 is eternal salvation by God's free grace. Why?
“Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;)… For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.” (Ephesians 2:5,8)
Those saved by grace are INCAPABLE of faith. Why? They were saved by grace when DEAD in sins.
”But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, Meekness, temperance...” (Galatians 5:22-23)
Apart from saying faith is a gift, do we read anywhere in the Scriptures where other spiritual graces listed are also spoken of as a gift in like manner?
FOLLOW UP ANSWER
Let me break that down to respond more fully.
No, it is not related to the discussion of whether faith is a fruit worked within by the indwelling spirit or a gift from without.
Ok.
My thought was on "justified by the faith of Christ." You said, "Moreover, I believe that the distinction between the possession of spiritual capacities and their exercise further clarifies the matter." It doesn't.
Why don’t you tell me what you really think, brother? 😊
It still begs the question, how does one come into possession of faith - is it a fruit worked within a child of God by the indwelling Spirit or is it a gift bestowed to a child of God from without.
It is a gift bestowed from without (Philippians 1:29) that is subsequently and synergistically worked within as we yield to the spirit’s influence in obedient discipleship. This relationship is modeled in the Philippian epistle: “Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, WORK OUT your own salvation with fear and trembling. For it is GOD which WORKETH in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.” (Philippians 2:12-13)
That text has a WE WORK and a HE WORK in view which is the very definition of synergism.
I believe the gift in Ephesians 2:8 is eternal salvation by God's free grace.
Yes. You’ve stated that multiple times. I’ve heard it before and believe it to be motivated by a laudable desire to make it clear that eternal salvation is by sovereign grace.
Why [do I believe that]? “Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved… For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.” (Ephesians 2:5,8) Those saved by grace are INCAPABLE of faith. Why? They were saved by grace when DEAD in sins. “But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, Meekness, temperance...” (Galatians 5:22-23)
True enough. However, this does not establish that faith IS NOT a gift of God. Rather, it affirms that faith IS a gift of God, one that is given in regeneration. It is for this reason that faith is referred to as “evidence.” (Hebrews 11:1) To state that another way, saying that “faith is the gift of God” is NOT the same as saying, “the exercise of faith is a prerequisite to eternal salvation.” As a result, there is no problem insisting that faith is the gift of God and that this is affirmed in Ephesians 2:8-9. This creates no conflict with the doctrine of sovereign, monergistic grace.
Apart from saying faith is a gift, do we read anywhere in the Scriptures where other spiritual graces listed are also spoken of as a gift in like manner?
I referenced one verse that states that faith is a gift by affirm that belief is a gift. Consider that reference: “For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;” (Philippians 1:29) This verse, taken alongside the fact that faith is a fruit of the spirit (Galatians 5:22) that the unregenerate do not possess (II Thessalonians 3:2), proves beyond any dispute that faith is a gift of God, even as Ephesians 2:8 plainly states.
Regarding “other spiritual graces [from Galatians 5:22]” being gifts, this follows unavoidably from any sober interpretation of the doctrine of total depravity. The unregenerate have not the Spirit and therefore do not possess any of the fruit thereof. It follows that any in possession of this fruit did not produce it themselves, but had it given to them in regeneration. This is precisely what is taught in Ephesians 2:8-9
“For by grace are ye saved through faith;”
This teaches that we are saved by the grace of God and this grace is manifest by our possession of faith.
“and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:”
The salvation is a gift, even as the faith that is an evidence thereof is a gift.
“Not of works, lest any man should boast.”
So, this salvation was by grace and not acquired through any exercise, even an exercise of the God given capacity of faith. In other words, man is given eternal life prior to any exercise of the faith that he is given in regeneration.
In Summary
To summarize, I affirm the following:
Salvation is a gift (Ephesians 2:8).
Faith is also a gift (Ephesians 2:8).
As are love, joy, peace, and all other fruit of the Spirit. (Galatians 5:22).
Unregenerate men do not possess any of the capacities (Psalm 10:4, 14:1, II Thessalonians 3:2)
Affirming that faith is a gift is consistent with other verses that state that fact (Philippians 1:29).
Moreover it is consistent with the doctrine of of total depravity (Romans 3:10-18).
- Elder Daniel Samons